Stuart Bailey wrote:Actually seem to have made a slight error and its not my character which is the subject of the Imperial Ban but The Duchy of Flanders-Brabant, the Country of Upper Guelderland and the Country of Luxembourg which can due to come under the Imperial Ban for the crime of being invaded by the French.
Must say seems a bit harsh to me.........lots of Imperial States have been invaded by the French and no one banned them.
Main punishment seems to be that Upper Guelderland and Luxembourg are to stripped of their votes in the Imperial Diet........poor Flanders-Brabant like Savoy and Milan never had a vote to start with which I always find a bit odd if these these places are indeed parts of the HRE (???) since Stade which is basically a large fishing village on the end of a sand spit has a vote.
Think I can live with an imperial ban/removal of voting rights.......at least this time no one wants to hang my character in the Edinburgh Grass Market after being force feed a last meal of fried haggis.
Glad I could help - there seems to be a lot of confusion in the newspaper, not least:
1. (as Stuart notes) what the counties referred to have actually done wrong unless they were complicit in being invaded, i.e. invited French armies in, recognised a French ruler or allied themselves to France therefore threatening Imperial stability in some way. Even if any of these applied it is still perhaps a little unfair to sanction the country which has been invaded/occupied for it is hardly in a position to revolt under the weight of French troops. Justice was not always fair as my point over the use of interdicts made clear, so there are precedents which the Emperor could follow if he felt it necessary. But I would not expect it to be popular or well supported - it would probably be unnecessary to engage Papal lawyers for the defence when a trainee from the University of Glasgow should be more than capable of winning this one! The terms 'Flanders', 'French Flanders' and 'Spanish Netherlands' do seem to be being used interchangeably by different players which adds to the confusion. In my judgement I preferred the term "Spanish Netherlands" for those parts of Flanders which were Spanish in 1700; "French Flanders" referring to the counties of Flanders annexed by King Louis in pre-1700 conflicts.
2. The listing of eligible voters which includes Upper Guelderland and Luxembourg. Presumably they will not be voting to ban themselves. Are they occupied by France? I suspect that unless the Emperor is very clear about precisely what/who a motion refers to and why it is being brought, the exercise may be stopped by a technicality. (The same kind of technicality which caused a simple tax change to get derailed in the Papal Diet last month - I really should have seen that one coming!)
3. The issue of Savoy at least is clear and even Papal lawyers could not mount a defence against that motion.
4. France's statement concerning the draft will. There are many problems with this, but am I the only one who is puzzled by the reference to Sicily (a Papal fief which was not able to be assigned under any will), "French Flanders" (which by definition has already been accepted as French, annexed in pre-1700 conflicts), and Savoy (which seems to have baffled Savoy's ambassador and rightly so because unless a professor at the University of Glasgow knows otherwise, Savoy is also not part of Spain). Papal lawyers have figured out a way that Savoy could become French, but have to acknowledge that it is going to be very awkward to argue it successfully. One potential impediment would be the existence of any formal alliance between France and Savoy, for it is not usual for an allies to seek to annex each other.
Being relatively new to G10, I have to wonder whether with all this occupation of territories by foreign armies whether anyone has actually declared war? Or could declare war? Unless I have misunderstood the situation:
1. France has occupied part of Sicily in the name of a Bourbon claimant to the throne of Spain, a claim which following France's acceptance of the Papal Ruling has been renounced. Since the ruling confirms that Sicily is the territory of the Papal States and I have asked for France to leave, if France does not leave has France declared war on the Papal States? I have no record of that. So when that fine body of men (the Papal Army) arrives, does the French occupation force leave or will my soldiers (all ten of them, well 9 plus an officer) rush headlong with their halberds at 14,000 heavily armed Frenchmen who not being at war will surrender? Alternatively if a Spanish army of greater strength takes it upon itself to challenge this French occupation, will the French surrender to them? For surely if they have been given orders to occupy foreign lands without a declaration of war, their officers would not take it upon themselves to start a war?
2. Savoy has occupied Sardinia in the name of a Bourbon claimant (according to France), but to put pressure on Spain to settle a 118 year old dowry (according to Savoy). Savoy rejects the judgement and that Sardinia is a Papal Fief, but has not declared war on Spain. The same question applies ... what does Savoy do when either a Spanish or Papal force arrives? Without a declaration of war, what precisely is the expected response? Surely the army of Savoy has no orders to resist the appearance of either so should surrender?
3. Savoy has occupied Milan over the 118 year old dowry, not in the name of a Bourbon claimant. So if a Spanish army marches into Milan, the Savoyard troops should surrender without a fight? Perhaps this is why French troops have moved into Milan, presumably under orders to seize Milan in the name of a Bourbon claimant, which no longer exists now France has accepted the Papal ruling?!
The problem with marching into a country and holding it hostage whilst demanding some form of ransom is that in each of the cases mentioned above it hasn't worked. France/Savoy may benefit during their period of occupation from any taxes/recruits they may plunder, but that plunder cannot legally belong to them and must be returned at some point in the future. They would also be liable for any damage done during their occupation. I suspect that France has taken well over £1M-worth of plunder over the last few years, and Savoy has taken even more. When will they pay it back? For even if they were to net it off against amounts due to them (which has been fixed by the judgement for France, but in the case of Savoy has yet to be established), there is still a considerable amount to be paid back to the legal owner.
And if they don't, are they not only guilty of extortion, but of theft and any number of other related charges?
As I said earlier, I may be totally wrong and have missed something. France or Savoy may have declared war on other nations before I joined, but I am sure that according to my records neither have declared war on the Papal States. And if no formal alliance exists between them and French/Savoyard forces are in the same territories for different reasons, it may cause no end of diplomatic problems if they tried to help each other.
Am I wrong?
Perhaps you will all now understand why I asked for short, simple, submissions for my judgement rather than confusing and often conflicting reports in newspapers.
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